Exam IV - 93 points

1. The average volume of fluid filtered into Bowman's capsule per day is approximately equal to the volume of urine excreted per day.
a. true     b. false

2. Two-thirds of the filtrate is reabsorbed in the
a. proximal convoluted tubule
b. loop of Henle
c. distal convoluted tubule
d. collecting duct

3. The concentration of glucose in the glomerular capsule is less than that of the plasma.
a. true     b. false

4. As the filtrate moves through the descending limb of the loop of Henle, the concentration of the filtrate increases.
a. true     b. false

5. Aldosterone causes
a. increased renal reabsorption of sodium
b. decreased renal secretion of potassium
c. increased permeability of the collecting duct to water
d. all of the above

6. One would expect to see decreases in the volume of urine formation following
a. ingestion of a martini
b. a decline in ADH release
c. an increase in ADH release
d. ingestion of a cup of coffee

7. The presence of anti-diuretic hormone causes aquaporins to be formed in the collecting duct.
a. true    b. false

8. Renin acts directly on the adrenal cortex to stimulate aldosterone secretion.
a. true     b. false

9. If the blood increases in osmolarity and decreases in volume, the posterior pituitary will release more ADH.
a. true     b. false

10. The daily obligatory water loss required to excrete metabolic wastes is typically about 2000 ml.
a. true     b. false

11. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle actively reabsorbs sodium and secretes chlorine to produce a concentrated interstitial fluid in the medulla of the kidney.
a. true     b. false

12. Sympathetic stimulation of the bladder results in micturition.
a. true     b. false

13. Urine leaves the kidney and is transported to the urinary bladder in the
a. calyx
b. collecting duct
c. urethra
d. ureter

14. Within the kidney, water reabsorption occurs by
a. active transport
b. facilitated diffusion
c. osmosis
d. phagocytosis

15. Glomerular filtration rate would be increased by
a. high plasma protein concentration
b. high afferent arteriole blood pressure
c. high efferent arteriole blood pressure
d. high filtrate pressure in the glomerular capsule

16. Countercurrent multiplication occurs in the
a. glomerulus
b. proximal convoluted tubule
c. loop of Henle
d. collecting duct

17. In response to alkalosis, the nephrons of the kidney would
a. reabsorb bicarbonate ions
b. secrete bicarbonate ions
c. secrete hydrogen ions
d. secrete sodium ions

18. Filtrate in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle would next enter the
a. descending limb of the loop of Henle
b. proximal convoluted tubule
c. distal convoluted tubule
d. collecting duct

19. Humans have more juxtamedullary nephrons than cortical nephrons.
a. true     b. false

20. Angiotensin II
a. causes vasoconstriction
b. stimulates aldosterone release
c. stimulates ADH release
d. all of the above

21. Which of the following does NOT digest proteins?
a. trypsin
b. gastrin
c. pepsin
d. carboxypeptidase

22. The zymogenic (chief) cells of the gastric glands secrete
a. hydrochloric acid
b. mucus
c. intrinsic factor
d. pepsinogen

23. Damage to which of the following nerves would reduce digestive tract secretions?
a. phrenic nerve
b. glossopharyngeal nerve
c. hypoglossal nerve
d. vagus nerve

24. Bile is produced by the liver and stored by the gall bladder.
a. true     b. false

25. The small intestine is the main site of digestion and absorption.
a. true     b. false

26. Histamine secretion by the stomach would be prevented by destruction of the
a. D cells
b. parietal cells
c. enterochromaffin-like cells
d. zymogenic cells

27. Final digestion of nutrients occurs during their absorption through the walls of the small intestine.
a. true     b. false

28. Bile contains hydrogen ions that aid in acidifying the stomach contents.
a. true     b. false

29. Peristalsis occurs in both the stomach and small intestine.
a. true     b. false

30. The primary function of the large intestine is
a. water reabsorption
b. mineral reabsorption
c. nutrient reabsorption
d. toxin degradation

31. Which of the following decreases gastric secretion?
a. secretin
b. histamine
c. aspirin
d. alcohol

32. Cholecystokinin causes all but which of the following?
a. pancreatic secretion of digestive enzymes
b. decreased gastric motility
c. increased gastric secretion
d. contraction of the gall bladder

33. Stomach distension results in all but which of the following?
a. increased gastric motility
b. increased gastric secretion
c. increased pancreatic secretion
d. decreased intestinal motility

34. The pancreatic enzyme which activates the other pancreatic enzymes is
a. bile
b. villikinin
c. trypsin
d. amylase

35. Which of the following is absorbed into the lymphatic system initially?
a. proteins
b. lipids
c. carbohydrates
d. bile salts

36. During the intestinal phase regulating gastric function
a. smelling food results in increased vagal activity
b. the vagus nerve stimulates gastric secretion
c. the oxyntic cells secrete more hydrochloric acid
d. gastric motility is slowed

37. Hydrochloric acid digests proteins.
a. true     b. false

38. Protein digestion begins in the stomach.
a. true     b. false

39. Secretin is produced by the
a. salivary glands
b. chief cells
c. pancreas
d. liver
e. small intestine

40. The stimulus for secretin release is acidic conditions in the duodenum.
a. true     b. false

41. Swallowing food is known as
a. mastication
b. deglutition
c. peristalsis
d. hydrolysis

42. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
a. blood reservoir
b. metabolism and storage of nutrients
c. detoxification of toxins
d. production of most plasma proteins
e. all of the above are functions of the adult liver

43. Thoroughly mixed partially digested material in the gastrointestinal tract is referred to as
a. rugae
b. bolus
c. chyme
d. chylomicrons
e. lamina propria

44. What hormone stimulates the release of pepsinogen?
a. gastrin
b. gastric inhibitory peptide
c. secretin
d. cholecystokinin
e. lipase

45. Blood glucose levels during fasting are maintained by the actions of the gall bladder.
a. true     b. false

46. Endocrine glands have ducts which carry the hormones directly to the bloodstream.
a. true     b. false

47. Most hormones are polypeptides.
a. true     b. false

48. Steroid hormones bind to receptors on the cell surface and activate intracellular secondary messengers to produce their effect on the target organ.
a. true     b. false

49. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin are synthesized by the posterior pituitary.
a. true     b. false

50. Insulin and glucagon are produced by the pancreas.
a. true     b. false

Match this list of endocrine glands to the hormones they produce.

a. anterior pituitary
b. pineal gland
c. thyroid gland
d. adrenal cortex
e. adrenal medulla

51. Melatonin

52. Norepinephrine

53. Growth Hormone

54. Calcitonin

55. Cortisol

56. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone

57. Parathyroid Hormone has all but which of the following effects?
a. promotes the formation of Vitamin D
b. increases calcium reabsorption in the nephron
c. increases phosphorus reabsorption in the nephron
d. increases calcium mobilization from the bones

58. Which of the following hormones does NOT cause adipose cells to undergo lipolysis and release fatty acids.
a. insulin
b. glucagon
c. growth hormone
d. epinephrine
e. cortisol

59. The effects of calcitonin and parathyroid hormone are antagonistic.
a. true     b. false

60. After a meal, insulin would be secreted with the effect of lowering blood glucose levels.
a. true     b. false

61. Inhibiting protein synthesis would most severely limit the production of
a. thyroxine
b. growth hormone
c. testosterone
d. progesterone

62. Hormones which enhance the responsiveness of the target organ to a second hormone which arrives later, are said to have what kind of effect?
a. antagonistic
b. complementary
c. permissive
d. synergistic

63. The adrenal cortex is NOT involved in
a. regulating blood glucose
b. regulating sodium
c. regulating calcium
d. regulating reproduction

64. Which of the following is a non-specific defense against viral infection?
a. antibodies
b. interferon
c. histamine
d. interleukin-2

65. Compounds which produce fever are said to be
a. histamines
b. plasmins
c. pyrogens
d. cerumens

66. Natural killer cells provide non-specific immunity against cancerous or virally-infected cells.
a. true     b. false

67. Monocytes are derived from macrophages.
a. true     b. false

68. Our epithelial tissues serve as barriers to pathogens.
a. true     b. false

69. Actions of interferon include
a. stimulation of fever
b. inhibition of killer T cells
c. inhibition of antibody production
d. inhibition of cell division

70. Antigens
a. are often proteins
b. are usually small molecules
c. often have a simple structure
d. a present in normal body fluids

71. Humoral immunity is provided by
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. Natural killer cells
d. macrophages

72. Which of the following is NOT true of antibodies?
a. consist of 2 heavy amino acid chains and 2 light amino acid chains in a Y configuration.
b. found on the surface of B cells and free in the plasma
c. build up much more quickly during a second encounter with the antigen than during the initial response.
d. within each antibody subclass, heavy chains are identical but the light chains have variable amino acid sequences.

73. Antibodies destroy antigens by phagocytizing them.
a. true     b. false

74. The class of antibodies providing passive immunity for breast-fed infants is
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE

75. Active immunity may be produced by
a. contracting a disease
b. receiving a vaccination
c. receiving an injection of antibodies
d. a and b
e. b and c

76. The primary purpose of the vasodilation during inflammation is to
a. produce swelling, redness, heat, and pain.
b. bring leukocytes to the infected area that defend against the offending agent.
c. produce negative feedback.
d. stimulate histamine release.

77. Complement proteins play no role in
a. diapedesis
b. chemotaxis
c. opsonization
d. osmotic lysing through creation of pores in membranes

78. Which of the following statements about T lymphocytes is false?
a. some T cells promote the activity of B cells.
b. some T cells suppress the activity of B cells.
c. some T cells secrete interferon.
d. some T cells produce antibodies.

79. Sex determination refers to the hormonal control of reproductive tract development.
a. true     b. false

80. The hormone which initiates puberty in both sexes is
a. gonadotropic releasing hormone
b. follicle stimulating hormone
c. estrogen
d. testosterone

81. Which of the following is NOT a result of luteinizing hormone secretion?
a. testosterone production
b. spermatogenesis
c. ovulation
d. androgen production in the ovary

82. The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by rising concentrations of estrogen.
a. true     b. false

83. During the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, the uterus is in its secretory phase.
a. true     b. false

84. If the egg is unfertilized and the corpus luteum regresses
a. menstruation results
b. ovulation occurs
c. the endometrium thickens
d. The placenta takes over hormone production

85. If no antidiuretic hormone is produced by the 10th week of gestation, the fetus becomes a female.
a. true     b. false

86. Erection of the penis and clitoris results from sympathetic stimulation.
a. true     b. false

87. Pregnancy is likely to occur if intercourse occurs 3 days after ovulation.
a. true     b. false

88. Oxytocin and estrogen stimulate milk production.
a. true     b. false

89. Human ova (eggs) are fertilized in the
a. ovaries
b. fallopian tubes (oviducts)
c. uterus
d. vagina

90. Secondary sex characteristics are those which develop at puberty.
a. true     b. false

91. The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle is the most variable in length.
a. true     b. false

92. Ovulation occurs on about day 28 of the typical menstrual cycle.
a. true     b. false

93. The hormone which most directly prepares the lining of the uterus for the possibility of pregnancy is
a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. FSH
d. LH

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